While the Rails guide describes has_many as “zero or more” associated instances, it describes has_one as having “one” associated instance. However, as evidenced in ruby on rails - Can has_one association be used when the model has one or zero instances of another model? - Stack Overflow, it seems that has_one associations are just as “able” to have zero associated instances as has_many associations.
Should the Rails guide be updated to reflect this? Am I misunderstanding the situation?
Pete
