has_one ordinality

While the Rails guide describes has_many as “zero or more” associated instances, it describes has_one as having “one” associated instance. However, as evidenced in http://stackoverflow.com/questions/19005296/can-has-one-association-be-used-when-the-model-has-one-or-zero-instances-of-anot, it seems that has_one associations are just as “able” to have zero associated instances as has_many associations.

Should the Rails guide be updated to reflect this? Am I misunderstanding the situation?

Pete

You are right, should be revised. Would you like to contribute a patch?